terrencechan (terrencechan) wrote,
terrencechan
terrencechan

Chinese poker hand for discussion

A couple smart people discussed this in our impromptu Chinese poker home game yesterday.

You are dealt Ah Kh Kd Qc Qs Jh Js Jd Td 6h 5h 3s 3c. How do you play it?

Poll #778835 Chinese poker hand
Open to: All, detailed results viewable to: All. Participants: 102

How do you play Ah Kh Kd Qc Qs Jh Js Jd Td 6h 5h 3s 3c ?

View Answers
Ah Kh Jh 6h 5h / Js Jd 3s 3c Td / Qc Qs Kd
48(47.1%)
Jh Js Jd 3s 3c / Kh Kd Td 6h 5h / Qc Qs Ah
52(51.0%)
other (comment)
2(2.0%)
Tags: chinese poker
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  • 15 comments

adb_foldem

July 26 2006, 20:39:51 UTC 13 years ago

fl/2pr/pr will lose 2 way more often than fh/pr/pr

Having AKK in hand makes QQ much better, so not much chance of being scooped.

You might win a scoop some fractionally more times with #1, but I doubt it would offset the losses.

fich

July 26 2006, 20:40:29 UTC 13 years ago

I like the first one. It seems to have better winning chances. But I'm not as good at CP as some of the people you know, and were probably in the game.

entrager

July 26 2006, 20:50:09 UTC 13 years ago

I'm not great at chinese... but what about something like:

Jh Js Jd 3s 3c / Kh Kd Qc Qs 5h / Ah Td 6h

You'll lose the small hand a lot of the time, but win the first two a lot. Or am I way off?

hgfalling

July 26 2006, 21:00:38 UTC 13 years ago

The problem with this is that the upgrade from KK to KKQQ in the middle is not that big, like maybe 30%, while the upgrade from AT6 to QQ in front is really big, around 60%.

scottro

13 years ago

  • New comment

jnala

July 26 2006, 21:14:07 UTC 13 years ago

(1) wins when opp has AA or tens up or lower in the middle.
(2) wins when opp has tens full or lower in back, or an AKQ flush.

My first reaction is that (2) seems more likely. Most boats are ten full or lower, whereas few two pair hands are tens up or lower.

On second thought that may not be the case; you have so many high cards that most of his possible two pair hands are actually going to be two small pair. That or aces up, but aces often go up front.

I still think I'm going with (2), since we're going to see baby boats in back so often and opposing trips make KK vs JJ33 irrelevant, but I'm not as sure as I was when I voted.

Deleted comment

the_greenhit

July 27 2006, 11:53:10 UTC 13 years ago

that's exactly what i was thinking.

prock

July 26 2006, 23:13:35 UTC 13 years ago

Having problems today I guess. I meant the first one, not other.

scottro

July 27 2006, 01:51:36 UTC 13 years ago

I voted for #2.

Before I voted, I took some cards out and set the hand myself before looking at your two choices. I set my hand exactly like #2.

Without knowing any of the math of CP, I think #2 is much more attractive because I'm much more happy with the boat in back and the big pair in the front. I'm thinking you're giving yourself a sure shot at two winners by forfeiting the middle.

77

Deleted comment

sabyl

July 27 2006, 05:01:49 UTC 13 years ago

I think I have an authoritative answer from JP Massar. He has an analyzer for Chinese Poker and I know he doesn't read Livejournal, so I emailed him. Anyway, my poll answer was validated by his response to my email. The best setting is the first one; in fact, he said the first option is "significantly better." Basically the difference between one pair in the middle and jacks up in the middle is much greater than the difference between an AK high flush in back and jacks full in the back.

the_greenhit

July 27 2006, 11:54:25 UTC 13 years ago

agh. confusion.

terrencechan

July 27 2006, 12:30:55 UTC 13 years ago

Yeah, I got independent confirmation on the flush/two pair as well. So, poll's closed now. :) thanks for responding to all; I knew when I posted what the right answer was but was curious how people would play it.

terrencechan

13 years ago

  • New comment

savemyskin

July 27 2006, 04:51:33 UTC 13 years ago

I dont have the software in front of me but I'm pretty sure playing the full house is correct.

Answer from NLSIM.COM chinese poker calculator

Anonymous

January 10 2012, 07:44:18 UTC 8 years ago

http://www.nlsim.com/solution_001.html top=one pair middle=2 pairs base=flush is the correct answer! (selected by computer) by playing full house, you almost always lose the middle hand. (a single pair in the middle is really weak). Phong Le